<< Chapter < Page Chapter >> Page >

Deriving maclaurin series from known series

Find the Maclaurin series of each of the following functions by using one of the series listed in [link] .

  1. f ( x ) = cos x
  2. f ( x ) = sinh x
  1. Using the Maclaurin series for cos x we find that the Maclaurin series for cos x is given by
    n = 0 ( −1 ) n ( x ) 2 n ( 2 n ) ! = n = 0 ( −1 ) n x n ( 2 n ) ! = 1 x 2 ! + x 2 4 ! x 3 6 ! + x 4 8 ! .

    This series converges to cos x for all x in the domain of cos x ; that is, for all x 0 .
  2. To find the Maclaurin series for sinh x , we use the fact that
    sinh x = e x e x 2 .

    Using the Maclaurin series for e x , we see that the n th term in the Maclaurin series for sinh x is given by
    x n n ! ( x ) n n ! .

    For n even, this term is zero. For n odd, this term is 2 x n n ! . Therefore, the Maclaurin series for sinh x has only odd-order terms and is given by
    n = 0 x 2 n + 1 ( 2 n + 1 ) ! = x + x 3 3 ! + x 5 5 ! + .
Got questions? Get instant answers now!
Got questions? Get instant answers now!

Find the Maclaurin series for sin ( x 2 ) .

n = 0 ( −1 ) n x 4 n + 2 ( 2 n + 1 ) !

Got questions? Get instant answers now!

We also showed previously in this chapter how power series can be differentiated term by term to create a new power series. In [link] , we differentiate the binomial series for 1 + x term by term to find the binomial series for 1 1 + x . Note that we could construct the binomial series for 1 1 + x directly from the definition, but differentiating the binomial series for 1 + x is an easier calculation.

Differentiating a series to find a new series

Use the binomial series for 1 + x to find the binomial series for 1 1 + x .

The two functions are related by

d d x 1 + x = 1 2 1 + x ,

so the binomial series for 1 1 + x is given by

1 1 + x = 2 d d x 1 + x = 1 + n = 1 ( −1 ) n n ! 1 · 3 · 5 ( 2 n 1 ) 2 n x n .
Got questions? Get instant answers now!
Got questions? Get instant answers now!

Find the binomial series for f ( x ) = 1 ( 1 + x ) 3 / 2

n = 1 ( −1 ) n n ! 1 · 3 · 5 ( 2 n 1 ) 2 n x n

Got questions? Get instant answers now!

In this example, we differentiated a known Taylor series to construct a Taylor series for another function. The ability to differentiate power series term by term makes them a powerful tool for solving differential equations. We now show how this is accomplished.

Solving differential equations with power series

Consider the differential equation

y ( x ) = y .

Recall that this is a first-order separable equation and its solution is y = C e x . This equation is easily solved using techniques discussed earlier in the text. For most differential equations, however, we do not yet have analytical tools to solve them. Power series are an extremely useful tool for solving many types of differential equations. In this technique, we look for a solution of the form y = n = 0 c n x n and determine what the coefficients would need to be. In the next example, we consider an initial-value problem involving y = y to illustrate the technique.

Power series solution of a differential equation

Use power series to solve the initial-value problem

y = y , y ( 0 ) = 3 .

Suppose that there exists a power series solution

y ( x ) = n = 0 c n x n = c 0 + c 1 x + c 2 x 2 + c 3 x 3 + c 4 x 4 + .

Differentiating this series term by term, we obtain

y = c 1 + 2 c 2 x + 3 c 3 x 2 + 4 c 4 x 3 + .

If y satisfies the differential equation, then

c 0 + c 1 x + c 2 x 2 + c 3 x 3 + = c 1 + 2 c 2 x + 3 c 3 x 2 + 4 c 3 x 3 + .

Using [link] on the uniqueness of power series representations, we know that these series can only be equal if their coefficients are equal. Therefore,

c 0 = c 1 , c 1 = 2 c 2 , c 2 = 3 c 3 , c 3 = 4 c 4 , .

Using the initial condition y ( 0 ) = 3 combined with the power series representation

y ( x ) = c 0 + c 1 x + c 2 x 2 + c 3 x 3 + ,

we find that c 0 = 3 . We are now ready to solve for the rest of the coefficients. Using the fact that c 0 = 3 , we have

c 1 = c 0 = 3 = 3 1 ! , c 2 = c 1 2 = 3 2 = 3 2 ! , c 3 = c 2 3 = 3 3 · 2 = 3 3 ! , c 4 = c 3 4 = 3 4 · 3 · 2 = 3 4 ! .

Therefore,

y = 3 [ 1 + 1 1 ! x + 1 2 ! x 2 + 1 3 ! x 3 1 4 ! x 4 + ] = 3 n = 0 x n n ! .

You might recognize

n = 0 x n n !

as the Taylor series for e x . Therefore, the solution is y = 3 e x .

Got questions? Get instant answers now!
Got questions? Get instant answers now!
Practice Key Terms 2

Get Jobilize Job Search Mobile App in your pocket Now!

Get it on Google Play Download on the App Store Now




Source:  OpenStax, Calculus volume 2. OpenStax CNX. Feb 05, 2016 Download for free at http://cnx.org/content/col11965/1.2
Google Play and the Google Play logo are trademarks of Google Inc.

Notification Switch

Would you like to follow the 'Calculus volume 2' conversation and receive update notifications?

Ask